Alejandro Sosa Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 how do you integrate x^-1 ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Superstition Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 The integral of 1/x --> ln | x | + kUsually taken as a given. The explanation is a bit longwinded. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DRC Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 *whooooooosh* Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
LocalLoop Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 17 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
zeezee Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 Add 1 to the power, and divide x by the new powerso the power is -1, add 1, it becomes 0.divide x by zero, u get 0 overall. correct me if i made a mistake Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Miss Fozzie Bear Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 c Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dubby Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 Add 1 to the power, and divide x by the new powerso the power is -1, add 1, it becomes 0.divide x by zero, u get 0 overall. correct me if i made a mistakeis wrong (in this case), superstition's explanation is correct Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Miss Fozzie Bear Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 oh i see now, yeah supers rihgt Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Alejandro Sosa Posted November 17, 2008 Author Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 yeaaaaah lnx how could i forget that when ive been using it all day, safe. forgot that x^-1 was 1/x for a second. superstition , brukfoot or otherscan u explain why when u integrate 1/x u find ln | x | + cwhy is it the modulus of x, in the margins, rather than just x ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dubby Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 draw the line of y=ln(x) you can see it never meets x=0 the x domain is x>0 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Sinister Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 f*ck, I actually miss maths.It was the ONLY subject I was good at. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest DN Braund Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
zeezee Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Angelo Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
King Poetic Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 :lol: I could have answered the original question 5 years ago. The second i touched uni, my algebraic knowledge systematically dissipated. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Benjamin Disraeli Posted November 17, 2008 Report Share Posted November 17, 2008 Mathematical Jargon is so irrelevant. I love how they try and tie it in to the 'real world' and how the universe is made up of numbers.NO! Numbers were created by human beings and they was assigned as a language of it's own.Pointless. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Da Luv Doc Posted November 18, 2008 Report Share Posted November 18, 2008 The integral of 1/x --> ln | x | + kUsually taken as a given. The explanation is a bit longwinded.You sure?He said X^-1, not 1/x though.Who can do Fourier Series expansions? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
A Bit Better Posted November 18, 2008 Report Share Posted November 18, 2008 Add 1 to the power, and divide x by the new powerso the power is -1, add 1, it becomes 0.divide x by zero, u get 0 overall. correct me if i made a mistakeSmh. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Superstition Posted November 18, 2008 Report Share Posted November 18, 2008 The integral of 1/x --> ln | x | + kUsually taken as a given. The explanation is a bit longwinded.You sure?He said X^-1, not 1/x though.They are the same thing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dubby Posted November 18, 2008 Report Share Posted November 18, 2008 Add 1 to the power, and divide x by the new powerso the power is -1, add 1, it becomes 0.divide x by zero, u get 0 overall. correct me if i made a mistakeSmh.lol didn't even clock that, two incorrect statements right there Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Da Luv Doc Posted November 18, 2008 Report Share Posted November 18, 2008 The integral of 1/x --> ln | x | + kUsually taken as a given. The explanation is a bit longwinded.You sure?He said X^-1, not 1/x though.They are the same thing.x^-2 = (x^-1)/-1Whats this then:The upper limits are x=1,x=3,y=1,y=3,z=0,z=3y+x??? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dubby Posted November 18, 2008 Report Share Posted November 18, 2008 The integral of 1/x --> ln | x | + kUsually taken as a given. The explanation is a bit longwinded.You sure?He said X^-1, not 1/x though.They are the same thing. x^-2 = (x^-1)/-1Whats this then:The upper limits are x=1,x=3,y=1,y=3,z=0,z=3y+x???x^-2 = 1/x^2what you said in the highlighted red equates to x^-2 = -x^-1 which makes no sense Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Da Luv Doc Posted November 18, 2008 Report Share Posted November 18, 2008 The integral of 1/x --> ln | x | + kUsually taken as a given. The explanation is a bit longwinded.You sure?He said X^-1, not 1/x though.They are the same thing. x^-2 = (x^-1)/-1Whats this then:The upper limits are x=1,x=3,y=1,y=3,z=0,z=3y+x???x^-2 = 1/x^2Ok I get you.M/s = ms^-1Ahhh you learn it like that.Sqrt 4x = (4x)^1/2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Superstition Posted November 18, 2008 Report Share Posted November 18, 2008 x^-2 = 1/x^2what you said in the highlighted red equates to x^-2 = -x^-1 which makes no senseI think he meant the integral of x^-2 is -1/x. Not that they're equivalent. He didn't make that clear though. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Da Luv Doc Posted November 18, 2008 Report Share Posted November 18, 2008 The limits of the integral are: x=1,x=3,y=1,y=3,z=0,z=3y+xWhat is the answer..... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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